pmp exam prep questions answers explanations pdf free download

pmp exam prep questions answers explanations pdf free download

What sort of estimate was used to supply this data by the developer? Parametric estimating. Bottom-up- estimating.

Analogues estimating. PERT estimating. B - All of the statements are correct. Stakeholder management is all about engaging stakeholders to meet their expectations and achieving stakeholder satisfaction. This is one of the key project objectives required to be achieved in order to deliver a successful project. C - The project manager is not correct. A value greater than one represents a favorable condition for the project.

The project manager has misinterpreted the situation. D - Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule. A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous projects that were similar in nature. A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables one on each axis.

Often a relationship between the two variables can then be determined, based on how closely they fit a geometric model. C - The first step should be to gather enough information so that the right decision and course of action can be determined. The second step should be to issue a change request and follow its approval. The project manager must first review the change request handling procedure specific to the contract and that can be found in the procurement contract itself.

B - Before the project begins, the organization is commonly referred to as being in the current state. The desired result of the change derived by the project is described as the future state. A - The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope especially in an uncontrolled manner are called scope creep. In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the output of a previous phase.

B - The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project's deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project's boundaries. C - A milestone chart displays only the key deliverables and is simple and easy to understand. C - Although David claims that he is supportive of all improvement initiatives, his behavior is not coherent with his claim.

A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product while saving money for the project. The prime objective of this exercise is to provide management with information about how effectively the sellers are achieving the contractual objectives and obligations. C - Student Syndrome — or procrastination — refers to the phenomena where people start to apply themselves only at the latest possible moment before the deadline. A - A good approach is to add a lessons-learned agenda item to the meeting.

Do your best to prevent this part of the meeting from devolving into a complaint session. B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false.

A - In adaptive life cycles, when multiple teams are concurrently developing a large number of features, the interconnected dependencies between the features become a major risk item. C - RACI chart is not a data analysis technique used during quantitative risk analysis. Rest of the choices are valid techniques for data analysis. B - Colocation is a tool and technique of the Develop Team process.

The other choices are not valid responses. D - The Resource Breakdown Structure RBS is a hierarchical structure of team and physical resources related by category and resource type. C - Documenting both the success stories and the failed attempts are important as these can be very important inputs for future projects.

Only focusing on the negatives and analyzing failures will paint half of the picture. C - The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point. A - A portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs that are grouped together to facilitate their effective management.

B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process. B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist.

C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to determine how the savings could be best put to use, whether there could be any cost sharing, etc.

D - In order to realize economies of scope, many organizations treat contract administration as an administrative function separate from the project organization. This is usually true if the performing organization is also the seller of the project to an external customer. C - Manage Communications is the process of distributing project information in accordance to the communications management plan.

The interviews and shortlisting was carried out during the Acquire Resources and so will be the hiring once the approvals come in. D - Sunk cost is defined as a cost that has already been incurred and which cannot be recovered.

D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with resource management planning in the planning process group, followed by the acquisition of the resources in the execution phase. The other choices are wrong, because the acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase.

What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project? Have only the project manager able to initiate change. Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change control process. Allow each project member ultimate control of changes within their realm of the project without a review process. Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes. A project manager calls you in as a consultant to provide input on developing the Project Charter.

Professional Consultant B. Expert Judgment C. Charter Consultant D. Expert Consultancy 3. Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information? Monitor and Control Project Work B. Project Management Information System C. Close Project or Phase D. Direct and Manage Project Work 4. Which of the following would not be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor during the Develop Project Charter process?

Scope Statement B. Organizational infrastructure C. Governmental standards D. Marketplace conditions 5. The Close Project or Phase process is not performed when: A. Closing projects C. Closing project phases D. Reactivating projects 6. Which of these tools and techniques is common to all seven Project Integration Management processes? Meetings B. Data analysis C. Data gathering D. Expert Judgment 7. You are beginning a new project. When should you use the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Throughout the entire project B. Only when closing out the project C. Only after the project is completely funded D. Only after the project scope is clearly defined 8. The project management team has determined that there are some changes to the scope of the project. According to the PMBOK, who is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and approving documented changes to the project?

The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the project performance while the Direct and Manage Project Work process is concerned with performing the activities to accomplish project requirements. There is no such thing as the Monitor and Control Project Work process.

You are a consulting project manager and an investment bank has a contract with you to run a large information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements were addressed in the project management plan but missed from the scope statement. Failure to meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company.

However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations could exceed the budget and scope of the project and result in the cancellation of the project. What should you do? Do not do anything as these requirements are not a part of the scope baseline. Request additional funds to implement these requirements. Submit a change request to incorporate the missed requirements in the project's scope. This is a classic example of scope creep and such requirements must be ignored.

B - The change control procedure varies from project to project. However, every change request must be processed through a formal change control process. B - Expert Judgment is judgment provided, based on expertise in an application area, a knowledge area, a discipline, an industry, etc. Expert Judgment is available from many sources including consultants. A - During the Monitor and Control Project Work process, work performance data is gathered and passed to the controlling processes.

The Monitor and Control Project Work process is responsible for keeping track of the all project's measures, including cost. A - The scope statement is clearly not an enterprise environmental factor, whereas the other three choices—governmental standards, organizational infrastructure, and marketplace conditions—are enterprise environmental factors.

D - The Close Project or Phase process allows the project manager to close or finish a specific phase of the project. A - Changes can occur in the project at any time. The Perform Integrated Change Control process is valuable for managing and tracking those changes. A - The Change Control Board is a group of formally constituted stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project.

C - All regulatory requirements must be met. Doing nothing or considering this a scope creep are not valid options. You would have to request additional funds, but first you need to submit a change request for approval. A change request can be submitted as a part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process.

Superior service, inferior service, peak hour service, optimized service, and client service B. Simple, intellectual, procedural, optimal coding C.

Sample, information, practice, organization, and control D. Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers 2. Julia is managing a water treatment plant construction project. A new government has recently been sworn in. Julia is not sure how the new government and its future policies might affect her project. This is an example of: A. Variability risk B. Mitigated risk C. Ambiguity risk D. Opportunity risk 3. As a project manager, you are responsible for determining and delivering the required levels of both grade and quality.

Select which of the following statements you disagree with. Grade relates to the product's characteristics. Grade relates to the customer requirements. Quality relates to the customer requirements. Quality and grade of a product must be carefully managed. Which of the following processes produces a work breakdown structure as an output?

Define Scope C. Develop Project Management Plan D. How can a project manager ensure continued active support of the project supporters and at the same time minimize negative impacts from the negative stakeholders? By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the communication management plan B. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the stakeholder management strategy C.

By ensuring that stakeholders are kept disengaged throughout the project lifecycle D. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand project goals, objectives, benefits, and risks 6. Most project management software packages use a method of constructing a project schedule network diagram known as: A.

Waterfall Method B. Precedence Diagramming Method C. Agile Method D. Just-in-time Method 7. The fundamental lesson from the Theory of Constraints by Goldratt is: A. Managers who choose to lead from the front are more successful. A system's throughput is limited by at least one constraint. Managers who delegate more are more successful.

Martin is the project manager of a project that is in an early phase. He needs to estimate costs but finds that he has a limited amount of detailed information about the project. Which of the following estimation techniques is least suited to his requirements? Top-down Estimating B. Bottom-up Estimating C. Budgetary Estimating 9. The performance reports produced during the Control Procurements process are then provided to which project management process for further processing?

Perform Integrated Change Control in the form of a change request D. Performance report is not an output of the Control Procurement process To develop a project stakeholder engagement plan, seek knowledge from groups or individuals with specialized training or subject matter insight into the relationships within the organization.

Consultation C. Expert judgment D. Sage opinion Three years back, your organization awarded a fixed price contract to a reputable local contractor to construct a new airport terminal in the city.

The contractor is claiming that as a result of the recent national recession, the prices of raw materials have gone up and he cannot complete the rest of the project at the contract price. Yes, you cannot penalize the contactor for price escalations due to force majeure. Yes, unless there is no Economic Price Adjustment provision in the contract.

No, the price of the contract is fixed and cannot be changed. Which of the following is an agile prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations: A.

Nominal group technique B. Mind mapping C. Decision trees D. Which of the following statements is correct: A. Project lifecycles and product lifecycles are interdependent. Project lifecycles are independent of product lifecycles. A product lifecycle is the same as a project lifecycle. The last lifecycle for a project is generally the product's retirement.

Unless an enterprise-wide ERP is deployed in an organization, disparate IT systems perform specialized tasks in a project. Project management information system B. Accounts payable system C. Change control and tracking system D. Supply chain management system It is extremely important for a project manager to determine and map key stakeholder engagement levels early in the project.

Which of the following statements support this claim: A. Stakeholder engagement levels change during the lifecycle of the project B. Stakeholder engagement throughout the lifecycle of the project is critical to project success C.

Leading stakeholders assume a supportive role during project execution D. A management control point where scope, budget and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement is a: A.

Code of accounts B. Control packages C. Control account D. Account Plan Which of the following is an example of a chart, used on agile projects, that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog? Histogram B. Burndown chart D. Scatter diagrams Which of the following best describes the Validate Scope process? Validating that the project quality requirements are met B. Controlling changes to the scope of the project C. Obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of the project deliverables D.

As a project manager, you are analyzing the costs incurred in a project. Which of the following costs cannot be classified under cost of nonconformance? Quality Assurance Costs B. Warranty costs C. Costs due to loss of reputation D. Rework costs Which of the following approaches can assist in managing ambiguity risks?

Monte Carlo analysis B. Root cause analysis C. Seeking expert external input D. Conducting sprint retrospectives A project manager estimates the work to be accomplished in the near term in detail at a low level of the Work Breakdown Structure WBS.

What is this technique called? Scope Creep D. The WBS represents all product and project work. The total work at the lowest levels should roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left out and no extra work is performed.

This principle is also the: A. Pareto's rule D. Ground rule A technical team can begin to edit a large document 15 days after it begins writing it.

What kind of dependency would this represent? Start-to-start with a day lead B. Finish-to-finish with a day lead C. Start-to-start with a day lag D. Finish-to-start with a day lag The role of the project manager changes to a facilitator in predictive environments.

The role of the project manager changes to a facilitator in adaptive environments. The role of the project manager does not change.

The role of the project manager is replaced with a scrum master in adaptive environments. The business case documents the business need and the cost benefit analysis that justify the project. The summary of how the project has achieved the business needs identified in the business case is document in the: A. Project WBS C. Project final report Which of the following is not a key configuration management consideration while selecting an appropriate configuration management tool for a project?

Identification and selection of configuration items. Recording and reporting of configuration item status. Configuration item verification and audit. Procedures for accepting and rejecting change requests.

Nancy is carrying out cost-benefit analysis for a project. If undertaken, the project will start in January next year and end by December. The revenue from the project is collected on a quarterly basis. The opportunity cost of the project is 12 percent which is the bank interest rate Nancy can get if she does not invest in this project.

What is the benefit-to-cost ratio for the project? The RBS is an example of a: A. Linear chart B. Matrix chart C. Flow chart D. Try Again. Report Close Quick Download Go to remote file.

Documents can only be sent to your Kindle devices from e-mail accounts that you added to your Approved Personal Document E-mail List. Because you cannot afford to take pot shots in the exam. Keep track of your scores in each exam and apply Kaizen continuous improvement to raise the bar on the target score you want to achieve.

It is good to practice answering as many tests as you can. You can also take the same test multiple times to see if you have overcome the mistake you did the previous time. Therefore, PMP Question bank is a handy tool that helps you prepare more objectively. It also gives you direction on areas to improve and assesses your exam readiness.

Whether you go for an online test, simulator or ebook, make sure they are updated to match the latest version of PMBoK.

Dump is a place where people are allowed to leave their rubbish. It is used as rubbish dump or garbage dump in common language. If you just look at the dictionary meaning of dump, it might mean that PMP certification dumps will not be useful since it is something left for garbage. However, unlike the dictionary meaning, PMP certification dumps are where you can find useful and several materials for PMP preparation. However, keep in mind that these are only a small part of our comprehensive PMP training materials.

We have provided links for our PMP question bank above.

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